indian polity mcq with answers pdf for state psc | SSC CGL | Rail p14

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Page 14

66. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res judicata except
(A) Certiorari
(B) Prohibition
(C) Quo warranto
(D) Habeas corpus

Correct Answer: [D] Habeas corpus.

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67. "Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution"" was opined by
(A) Granville Austin
(B) K.L Wheare
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) A.V. Dicey

Correct Answer: [A] Granville Austin.

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68. Which one of the following judgment is not related to the 'doctrine of separation of powers'?
(A) Union of India v. Sankalchand
(B) Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
(C) State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
(D) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

Correct Answer: [D] Golak Nath v. State of Punjab.

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69. Any charge of impeachment of the President may be preferred
(A) only in the joint session of Parliament
(B) by either House of Parliament
(C) only in the Council of States
(D) only in the House of the People

Correct Answer: [B] by either House of Parliament.

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70. The power of the President to grant pardon is an independent power distinct from judicial power. It is not justifiable on its merits. Only the area and scope of the President's power under Article 72 can be examined by the court. This was held by the Supreme Court in
(A) Maru Ram v. Union of India
(B) State of Punjab v. Joginder Singh
(C) Kehar Singh v. Union of India
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: [D] All of the above.

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indian constitution questions and answers for state psc p13

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Page 13

61. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of
(A) 6 months
(B) 3 months
(C) 14 days
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [C] 14 days.

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62. The maximum number of nominated members in both Houses of Parliament can be
(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 10
(D) 12

Correct Answer: [A] 14.

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63. India has borrowed the scheme of federation i.e. `Union of States' from which country?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Ireland
(D) Canada

Correct Answer: [D] Canada.

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64. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 15

Correct Answer: [B] Article 17.

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65. The following are not included in the light to personal liberty:
(A) Right to equality of wages
(B) Freedom from arrest
(C) Right to free legal aid
(D) Right not to be tortured

Correct Answer: [A] Right to equality of wages.

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indian polity quiz for SSC | UPSC | Rail | Bank Govt exam P12

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Page 12

56. Which Article of the Constitution provides that the Parliament will determine the extent of fundamental rights for the members of the Armed Forces?
(A) Article 33
(B) Article 32A
(C) Article 31D
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] Article 33.

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57. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the concept of Directive Principles from
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Constitution of USA
(C) Constitution of Switzerland
(D) Constitution of Ireland

Correct Answer: [D] Constitution of Ireland.

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58. The disputes regarding the election of President and Vice-President of India are filed and settled
(A) both in the Supreme Court as well as High Courts
(B) in the Election Commission
(C) in the Supreme Court
(D) in the Parliament

Correct Answer: [C] in the Supreme Court.

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59. The President's Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum period of
(A) one year
(B) two years
(C) six months
(D) nine months

Correct Answer: [C] six months.

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60. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament, the President
(A) may give his assent.
(B) may withhold his assent.
(C) may return the Bill for reconsideration.
(D) shall give his assent

Correct Answer: [D] shall give his assent.

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indian polity quiz for upsc | SSC | State Psc p11

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Page 11

51. The power of allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the constituencies is vested with
(A) State Legislatures
(B) President
(C) Election Commission
(D) Parliament

Correct Answer: [D] Parliament.

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52. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of
(A) State Legislative Assembly
(B) Governor
(C) President
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] State Legislative Assembly.

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53. Democracy and federalism are essential features of our Constitution and basic feature of its structure. This observation was made in S.R. Bommai case by
(A) P.B. Sawant, J.
(B) A.M. Ahmadi, J
(C) J.S. Verma, J.
(D) S.R. Pandian, J

Correct Answer: [A] P.B. Sawant, J..

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54. On which of the following freedoms are reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the State?
(A) Association or union
(B) Movement
(C) Speech and expression
(D) Peaceful assembly

Correct Answer: [C] Speech and expression.

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55. Under Article 30(1), the right to establish and administer educational institution belongs to
(A) religious and linguistic minorities.
(B) minorities as well as the majority.
(C) all citizens of India.
(D) all people of India

Correct Answer: [A] religious and linguistic minorities..

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indian polity mcq with answers pdf p10

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Page 10

46. Articles 20 - 22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to
(A) natural persons as well as artificial persons.
(B) all persons who have a juristic personality.
(C) citizen only.
(D) citizens and non-citizens

Correct Answer: [D] citizens and non-citizens.

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47. Right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of
(A) health
(B) morality
(C) public order
(D) security of state

Correct Answer: [D] security of state.

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48. In 1971, a new Article 31C was inserted in the Constitution which provides that a law giving effect to the Directive Principles of State Policy specified in Article 39b and c will not be void on the ground of contravention of Articles 14,19 or 31. The insertion was made by which of the following Amendments?
(A) 25th Amendment
(B) 26th Amendment
(C) 21st Amendment
(D) 24th Amendment

Correct Answer: [A] 25th Amendment.

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49. According to Article 35, with respect to any of the matters under Articles 16(3) 32(3) 33 and 34, who has the power to make laws?
(A) Both A & B
(B) The State Legislature
(C) The Parliament
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [C] The Parliament.

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50. How many duties are conferred on the citizens in Article 51A?
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 8
(D) 9

Correct Answer: [A] 11.

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indian constitution question paper with answer p9

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Page 9

41. Elections to the Vidhan Parishad are held by
(A) the system of proportional representation.
(B) the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
(C) Direct elections
(D) Indirect elections

Correct Answer: [B] the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote..

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42. Which of the following emergencies has been declared the maximum number of times?
(A) Financial Emergency
(B) President's Rule in a State
(C) National Emergency
(D) All three, equal number of times

Correct Answer: [B] President's Rule in a State.

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43. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan

Correct Answer: [A] Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

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44. The group of people in the State to constitute backward class to satisfy Article 15(4) is left to the decision of
(A) the State
(B) the Parliament
(C) the Court
(D) the President of India

Correct Answer: [D] the President of India.

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45. Under Article 16, the words 'any employment or office' applies to
(A) public employment
(B) private employment
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] public employment.

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Indian constitution questions and answers for competitive exams P8

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Page 8

36. Which one of the following authority is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Governor of a State
(D) The Parliament of India

Correct Answer: [A] The President of India.

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37. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President?
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Chairman of the UPSC

Correct Answer: [C] Attorney General of India.

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38. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the appointment of Comptroller and Auditor General?
(A) Article 78
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 178
(D) Article 238

Correct Answer: [B] Article 148.

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39. The Parliament of India consists of
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President

Correct Answer: [D] Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President.

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40. Total strength of the Council of States consists of
(A) 260 members
(B) 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President
(C) 305 members
(D) 300 members representing States and Union Territories

Correct Answer: [B] 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President.

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230+ Important MCQs on Indian Constitution and Polity For WBCS 2019

"230+ Important MCQs on Indian Constitution and Polity For WBCS 2019" is discussed in this article. These are all selected previous years questions of WBCS Prelims and Mains. Please check through the article and wish this will help you to boost your preparation of Indian Polity and Constitution for 2019.

1. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity - History, Features, Preamble [P-1]
2. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity - History, Features, Preamble [P-2]
3. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity -Fundamental Rights Duties and DPSP [P-1]
4. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity -Fundamental Rights Duties and DPSP [P-2]
5. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity - Parliament Vice-President [P-1]
6. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity - Parliament Vice-President [P-2]
7. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity - Parliament Vice-President [P-3]
8. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity - Parliament Vice-President [P-4]
9. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity - Parliament Vice-President [P-5]
10. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity -Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous [P-1]
11. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity -Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous [P-2]
12. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity -Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous [P-3]
13. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity -Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous [P-4]
14. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity -Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous [P-5]
15. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity -Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous [P-6]
16. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity - Constitutional Body, Parliamentary Committee [P-1]
17. WBCS Prelims MCQs Polity - Constitutional Body, Parliamentary Committee [P-2]
18. Indian Constitution & Polity - WBCS Main 2018 [P-1]
19. Indian Constitution & Polity - WBCS Main 2018 [P-2]
20. Indian Constitution & Polity - WBCS Main 2018 [P-3]
21. Indian Constitution & Polity - WBCS Main 2018 [P-4]
22. Indian Constitution & Polity - WBCS Main 2018 [P-5]
23. Indian Constitution & Polity - WBCS Main 2018 [P-6]
24. Indian Constitution & Polity - WBCS Main 2018 [P-7]

If you considered this article is helpful please share it with your friends and in your social media so, that we get enough reason to write more article like this. 

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Indian Polity Questions Answers For WBCS Mains P7

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Page 7

31. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
(A) Article 258
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 262
(D) Article 264

Correct Answer: [C] Article 262.

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32. Disputes between States comes to the Supreme Court under
(A) original jurisdiction
(B) advisory jurisdiction
(C) appellate jurisdiction
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] original jurisdiction.

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33. The doctrine of prospective overruling was first evolved by Chief Justice Subba Rao in
(A) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(C) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

Correct Answer: [D] Golaknath v. State of Punjab.

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34. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court held that primacy should be given to the opinion of other constitutional functions in the matter of appointment of High Court and Supreme Court judges.
(A) Keshvananda Bharti case
(B) Special Courts Bills case
(C) Transfer of Judges case
(D) Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India

Correct Answer: [D] Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India.

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35. Every judge of the Supreme Court of India shall hold office until he attains the' age of
(A) 58 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years

Correct Answer: [D] 65 years.

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Indian Polity Quiz For WBCS Prelims and Mains P6

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Page 6

26. Under Article 321 of the Constitution, the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Parliament
(C) Chairman of the Commission
(D) President

Correct Answer: [B] Parliament.

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27. After what time period may a House declare the seat of any member vacant when he absents from all meetings without the permission of the House?
(A) 30 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 60 days
(D) There is no time period

Correct Answer: [C] 60 days.

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28. When the offices of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are vacant, who will appoint the person to perform the functions of the Speaker?
(A) The President
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Council of Ministers

Correct Answer: [A] The President.

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29. How many members in the House of the People are chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States?
(A) 520
(B) 530
(C) 540
(D) 550

Correct Answer: [B] 530.

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30. How many languages are present in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22

Correct Answer: [D] 22.

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Indian Polity MCQs and Notes For WBCS exams P5

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Page 5

21. The East India Company was established by the British Crown in the year
(A) 1600 AD.
(B) 1605 AD.
(C) 1726 AD.
(D) 1857 AD

Correct Answer: [A] 1600 AD..

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22. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving the question of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in
(A) Article 156
(B) Article 254
(C) Article 300
(D) Entry 42, List III

Correct Answer: [B] Article 254.

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23. The Central Government can issue directions to the States with regard to I. Union List II. State List III Concurrent List Codes:
(A) I
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and III

Correct Answer: [D] I, II and III.

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24. "What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly". The doctrine relates to
(A) implied powers
(B) ancillary power
(C) pith and substance
(D) colorable legislation

Correct Answer: [D] colorable legislation.

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25. When the Supreme Court sits to determine any question involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution or for tendering its advice, the minimum number of judges to constitute the Bench should be
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 13

Correct Answer: [B] 5.

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WBCS Main MCQs on Indian Polity and Constitutions P4

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Page 4

16. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the
(A) British Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Federal Legislature
(D) Governor-General

Correct Answer: [D] Governor-General.

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17. Quit India movement was declared by the Indian National Congress in Bombay session of ACCCC on
(A) August 8, 1942
(B) August 9, 1945
(C) July 18, 1947
(D) January 26, 1947

Correct Answer: [A] August 8, 1942.

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18. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Federal Court had
(A) original jurisdiction only
(B) appellate jurisdiction only
(C) advisory jurisdiction only
(D) All the above

Correct Answer: [D] All the above.

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19. For the first time, the system of appeal from India to the Privy Council in England was introduced by the Charter of
(A) 1608
(B) 1683
(C) 1726
(D) 1833

Correct Answer: [D] 1833.

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20. Under the Charter of 1687, a Mayor's Court was established at Madras. The Mayor had to be
(A) elected by the Alderman and the Burgesses every year.
(B) nominated by the company.
(C) senior-most Alderman to be next year.
(D) nominated by the company on the recommendation of the outgoing Mayor

Correct Answer: [B] nominated by the company..

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Indian Polity and Constitution - WBPSC Exams P3

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Page 3

11. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the
(A) Canadian Constitution.
(B) Italian Constitution.
(C) French Constitution.
(D) Constitution of USA

Correct Answer: [D] Constitution of USA.

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12. From which of the countries, the Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties?
(A) USA.
(B) UK.
(C) Erstwhile USSR.
(D) Canada

Correct Answer: [C] Erstwhile USSR..

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13. The British conceded the demand for partition of India under
(A) Cripps Mission.
(B) Mountbatten Plan, 1947.
(C) Simla Pact, 1945.
(D) Cabinet Mission Plan

Correct Answer: [B] Mountbatten Plan, 1947..

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14. The first Session of the Constituent Assembly was held on
(A) December 9, 1946
(B) November 26, 1949
(C) August 15, 1947
(D) January 26, 1946

Correct Answer: [A] December 9, 1946.

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15. Which of the following was not one of the features of the Government of India Act, 1935?
(A) Bicameral legislature.
(B) Dyarchy of center and the provinces.
(C) Provincial autonomy.
(D) All India Federation

Correct Answer: [B] Dyarchy of center and the provinces..

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Indian Polity and Constitution WBCS Mains Exams P2

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Page 2

6. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the
(A) Prime Minister.
(B) Chairman of UPSC.
(C) President on the recommendation of Supreme Court.
(D) Prime Minister on the recommendation of the Supreme Court

Correct Answer: [C] President on the recommendation of Supreme Court..

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7. The Chief Election Commissioner is
(A) appointed by Home Minister.
(B) appointed by Prime Minister.
(C) elected by Parliament.
(D) appointed by the President

Correct Answer: [D] appointed by the President.

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8. The special status of Jammu & Kashmir implies the state as
(A) a separate judiciary.
(B) a separate constitution.
(C) a separate defense force.
(D) All the above

Correct Answer: [B] a separate constitution..

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9. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that 'Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution'?
(A) In re Keshwananda Bharti.
(B) In re Golaknath case.
(C) In re Swam Singh.
(D) In re Maneka Gandhi

Correct Answer: [A] In re Keshwananda Bharti..

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10. Which of the following sought to change the character of Indian Government from unitary to federal?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1909.
(B) The government of India Act, 1935.
(C) The government of India Act, 1919.
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947

Correct Answer: [B] The government of India Act, 1935..

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Indian Polity and Constitution For WBCS MAIN Previous Years MCQs P1

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Page 1

1. In the beginning, there were only eight schedules in the Constitution. Xth schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
(A) the Finance Commission.
(B) the Election Commission.
(C) defections.
(D) Other Backward Classes.

Correct Answer: [C] defections..

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2. Chairman and other members of the Union and State Public Service Commissions are appointed by
(A) the President.
(B) the President and Governor of respective States.
(C) the Prime Minister and Chief Minister of the respective States.
(D) Both A and C

Correct Answer: [B] the President and Governor of respective States..

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3. There are mainly three Standing Finance Committee in the Parliament. The largest committee of Parliament of India is
(A) Committee on Public Undertaking.
(B) Estimates Committee.
(C) Joint Parliamentary Committee.
(D) Public Account Committee

Correct Answer: [B] Estimates Committee..

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4. The members of UPSC hold the office
(A) as long as they enjoy the confidence in Parliament.
(B) for life or till they attain the age of 70 years.
(C) during the pleasure of President.
(D) for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years

Correct Answer: [D] for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years.

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5. The Chairman of the Election Commission is appointed by the President for 6 years. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of election to
(A) State Legislature.
(B) Office of President and Vice President.
(C) Parliament.
(D) All the above

Correct Answer: [D] All the above.

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MCQs on Indian Polity and Constitution P36

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Page 36

176. Judicial Committee of the Privy Council was the highest court to appeal for a commonwealth country under the British empire. It was established in
(A) 1813
(B) 1726
(C) 1683
(D) 1833

Correct Answer: [D] 1833.
Explanation: Privy Council was considered as the court of last resort. India retained the right to appeal from the Federal Court of India till 1950. It was abolished by the act of 1949 following the replacement of the Federal Court by The Supreme Court of India. The system of appeal from India to the Privy Council in England was introduced by the Charter Act 1933.

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177. The date mentioned in the preamble of the Indian Constitution is
(A) 18289
(B) 18593
(C) 17924
(D) 18228

Correct Answer: [D] 18228.
Explanation: It was the date when the constitution was adopted in 26-Nov-1949. The constitution was finally enacted in 26-January-1950.

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178. Which of the following word is not added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
(A) Fraternity
(B) Integrity
(C) Liberty
(D) Unity

Correct Answer: [C] Liberty.
Explanation: The words were added by 42nd CA are Secular, Socialist, Fraternity, Unity, and Integrity.

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179. According to the constitution, what is the source of all power?
(A) Indian National Army
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister and its cabinet
(D) We, the people of India

Correct Answer: [D] We, the people of India.

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180. A quasi-federal form of government i.e a federal system with strong central government was adopted in Indian constitution from the constitution of
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) Canada
(D) Russia

Correct Answer: [C] Canada.

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MCQs on Indian Polity and Constitution P35

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Page 35

171. Who appoints a member of UPSC and State PSCs?
(A) Governor
(B) President
(C) President and Governor respectively
(D) President on the recommendation of Prime minister and Chief Minister respectively

Correct Answer: [C] President and Governor respectively.
Explanation: A member of state PSC is appointed by Governor, but the member of joint PSCs is appointed by President. President can only remove a member or multiple members of State PSCs and UPSC if they proved wrong in the court of laws.

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172. The state Jammu & Kashmir enjoys special constitutional status following article 370. It implies the state as
(A) a separate constitution
(B) a separate defense force
(C) a separate foreign policy
(D) Att the above

Correct Answer: [A] a separate constitution.
Explanation: Following the article 370 of Indian constitution the state J & K enjoy a special constitutional status. It allows the state to have a separate constitution which stops people from other location to buying a property in this state. Indian Penal Code does not follow in J & K rather Ranbir Penal Code(RPC) followed. Indian Parliament can not make laws on this state without pass the proposal in this state assembly, But the govt of India has right on defense, foreign policy, and communication. The state assembly of J&K is a 6-year tenure whereas the rest of the Indian state has 5 years.

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173. The main source of the Indian Constitution was considered to be the Indian Regulation Act 1935. Which of the following is not a feature of Regulation Act 1935?
(A) All India Federation
(B) Provincial Autonomy
(C) Dyarchy of Center and the Provinces
(D) Bicameral Legislature

Correct Answer: [C] Dyarchy of Center and the Provinces.
Explanation: If you notice closely you can find that options B and C are contradictory. If there is provincial autonomy how could it be dyarchy? Actually, dyarchy was abolished from provinces and applied in the center.

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174. Govt of India Act,1935 was the lengthiest act by that time. According to this article, the residuary power was vested in
(A) State Legislature
(B) Viceroy
(C) Federal Legislature
(D) British parliament

Correct Answer: [B] Viceroy.

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175. Under the GOI, 1935, The federal court was established. The court had the jurisdiction of
(A) appellate jurisdiction only
(B) advisory jurisdiction only
(C) original jurisdiction only
(D) All the above

Correct Answer: [D] All the above.

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WBCS Prelims MCQ on Constitutional Body, Committee P34

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Page 34

166. The Judges of the Supreme Court hold office till they reach the age of
(A) 65 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 55 years
(D) There is no upper age Limit

Correct Answer: [A] 65 years.

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167. The Supreme Court of India consists of the Chief Justice and
(A) 29 Judges
(B) 32 Judges
(C) 31 Judges
(D) 30 Judges

Correct Answer: [D] 30 Judges.

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168. Who is the final authority to expound the meaning of the Constitution?
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) Chief Minister
(D) The President

Correct Answer: [B] The Supreme Court.

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169. Mark correctly the precise meaning of the term 'Habeas Corpus'?
(A) To remove the body
(B) None of the above
(C) To put the body behind the prison bar
(D) To have the body

Correct Answer: [D] To have the body.

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170. In India, the Federal Court was constituted by an act of
(A) 1919
(B) 1935
(C) 1891
(D) 1909

Correct Answer: [B] 1935.

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WBCS Prelims MCQ on Constitutional Body, Committee P33

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Page 33

161. Who accords recognition to various political parties as national or regional parties?
(A) The Parliament
(B) The President in consultation with the Election Commissioner
(C) The President
(D) The Election Commission

Correct Answer: [D] The Election Commission.

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162. Which of the following committees is concerned with the regularity of the-expenditure of the Government?
(A) Committee on Public Undertakings
(B) All of the above
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) Estimates Committee

Correct Answer: [C] Public Accounts Committee.

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163. The Election Commission of India celebrates the National Voters Day on
(A) 25th January
(B) 1st February
(C) 26th January
(D) 25th March

Correct Answer: [A] 25th January.

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164. What is the number of members in the Public Accounts Committee of the Lok Sabha?
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 7
(D) 10

Correct Answer: [A] 15.

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165. Judges of the High Court in India retire at the age of
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 55
(D) 62

Correct Answer: [D] 62.

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WBCS Prelims MCQ on Constitutional Body, Committee P32

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Page 32

156. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by the
(A) President at his sweet will
(B) President on the recommendation of parliament
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Parliament

Correct Answer: [B] President on the recommendation of parliament.

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157. The National Development Council consists of
(A) Members of the Planning Commission
(B) Chief Minister of all States
(C) Prime Minister
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: [D] All of the above.

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158. Chairman of the Indian Planning Commission is
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Vice-President
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister

Correct Answer: [D] Prime Minister.

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159. Constitution of Finance Commission is mentioned in the Constitution and the Chairman of the Commission is appointed by
(A) Chief Justice
(B) Vice-President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President

Correct Answer: [D] President.

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160. The Finance Commission is constituted under Article of the Constitution of India.
(A) 282
(B) None of the above
(C) 275
(D) 280

Correct Answer: [D] 280.

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