Ancient Indian History MCQ For PSC Main Exam P15

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Page 15

71. The famous Jaina temples at Dilwara were built by?
(A) Solankis
(B) Chauhans
(C) Paramaras
(D) Chandellas

Correct Answer: [A] Solankis.

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72. When were the Silkworms introduced into the Byzantine empire from China, adversely affecting India's already declining foreign trade?
(A) 615 AD
(B) 351 AD
(C) 451 AD
(D) 551 AD

Correct Answer: [D] 551 AD.

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73. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Arrian—Indica
(B) Claudius Aelianus—Naturalis Historica
(C) Diodorus Sicilus—Bibliotheca Historica
(D) Strabo Geography

Correct Answer: [B] Claudius Aelianus—Naturalis Historica.

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74. Who tells us that 'India' (i.e. Indus Valley) was the 20th and most prosperous satrapy (province) of the Persian empire?
(A) Fa Hien
(B) Yijing
(C) Herodotus
(D) Megasthenese

Correct Answer: [C] Herodotus.

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75. Which of the following is/are the well-known ancient geographical epithets of India?
(A) Bharatvarsha
(B) Saptadvipa
(C) Both A and B
(D) Jambudvipa

Correct Answer: [C] Both A and B.

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indian polity mcq with answers pdf for state psc | SSC CGL | Rail p14

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Page 14

66. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res judicata except
(A) Certiorari
(B) Prohibition
(C) Quo warranto
(D) Habeas corpus

Correct Answer: [D] Habeas corpus.

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67. "Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution"" was opined by
(A) Granville Austin
(B) K.L Wheare
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) A.V. Dicey

Correct Answer: [A] Granville Austin.

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68. Which one of the following judgment is not related to the 'doctrine of separation of powers'?
(A) Union of India v. Sankalchand
(B) Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
(C) State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
(D) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

Correct Answer: [D] Golak Nath v. State of Punjab.

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69. Any charge of impeachment of the President may be preferred
(A) only in the joint session of Parliament
(B) by either House of Parliament
(C) only in the Council of States
(D) only in the House of the People

Correct Answer: [B] by either House of Parliament.

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70. The power of the President to grant pardon is an independent power distinct from judicial power. It is not justifiable on its merits. Only the area and scope of the President's power under Article 72 can be examined by the court. This was held by the Supreme Court in
(A) Maru Ram v. Union of India
(B) State of Punjab v. Joginder Singh
(C) Kehar Singh v. Union of India
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: [D] All of the above.

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indian constitution questions and answers for state psc p13

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Page 13

61. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of
(A) 6 months
(B) 3 months
(C) 14 days
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [C] 14 days.

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62. The maximum number of nominated members in both Houses of Parliament can be
(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 10
(D) 12

Correct Answer: [A] 14.

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63. India has borrowed the scheme of federation i.e. `Union of States' from which country?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Ireland
(D) Canada

Correct Answer: [D] Canada.

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64. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 15

Correct Answer: [B] Article 17.

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65. The following are not included in the light to personal liberty:
(A) Right to equality of wages
(B) Freedom from arrest
(C) Right to free legal aid
(D) Right not to be tortured

Correct Answer: [A] Right to equality of wages.

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indian polity quiz for SSC | UPSC | Rail | Bank Govt exam P12

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Page 12

56. Which Article of the Constitution provides that the Parliament will determine the extent of fundamental rights for the members of the Armed Forces?
(A) Article 33
(B) Article 32A
(C) Article 31D
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] Article 33.

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57. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the concept of Directive Principles from
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Constitution of USA
(C) Constitution of Switzerland
(D) Constitution of Ireland

Correct Answer: [D] Constitution of Ireland.

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58. The disputes regarding the election of President and Vice-President of India are filed and settled
(A) both in the Supreme Court as well as High Courts
(B) in the Election Commission
(C) in the Supreme Court
(D) in the Parliament

Correct Answer: [C] in the Supreme Court.

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59. The President's Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum period of
(A) one year
(B) two years
(C) six months
(D) nine months

Correct Answer: [C] six months.

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60. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament, the President
(A) may give his assent.
(B) may withhold his assent.
(C) may return the Bill for reconsideration.
(D) shall give his assent

Correct Answer: [D] shall give his assent.

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indian polity quiz for upsc | SSC | State Psc p11

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Page 11

51. The power of allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the constituencies is vested with
(A) State Legislatures
(B) President
(C) Election Commission
(D) Parliament

Correct Answer: [D] Parliament.

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52. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of
(A) State Legislative Assembly
(B) Governor
(C) President
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] State Legislative Assembly.

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53. Democracy and federalism are essential features of our Constitution and basic feature of its structure. This observation was made in S.R. Bommai case by
(A) P.B. Sawant, J.
(B) A.M. Ahmadi, J
(C) J.S. Verma, J.
(D) S.R. Pandian, J

Correct Answer: [A] P.B. Sawant, J..

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54. On which of the following freedoms are reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the State?
(A) Association or union
(B) Movement
(C) Speech and expression
(D) Peaceful assembly

Correct Answer: [C] Speech and expression.

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55. Under Article 30(1), the right to establish and administer educational institution belongs to
(A) religious and linguistic minorities.
(B) minorities as well as the majority.
(C) all citizens of India.
(D) all people of India

Correct Answer: [A] religious and linguistic minorities..

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indian polity mcq with answers pdf p10

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Page 10

46. Articles 20 - 22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to
(A) natural persons as well as artificial persons.
(B) all persons who have a juristic personality.
(C) citizen only.
(D) citizens and non-citizens

Correct Answer: [D] citizens and non-citizens.

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47. Right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of
(A) health
(B) morality
(C) public order
(D) security of state

Correct Answer: [D] security of state.

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48. In 1971, a new Article 31C was inserted in the Constitution which provides that a law giving effect to the Directive Principles of State Policy specified in Article 39b and c will not be void on the ground of contravention of Articles 14,19 or 31. The insertion was made by which of the following Amendments?
(A) 25th Amendment
(B) 26th Amendment
(C) 21st Amendment
(D) 24th Amendment

Correct Answer: [A] 25th Amendment.

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49. According to Article 35, with respect to any of the matters under Articles 16(3) 32(3) 33 and 34, who has the power to make laws?
(A) Both A & B
(B) The State Legislature
(C) The Parliament
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [C] The Parliament.

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50. How many duties are conferred on the citizens in Article 51A?
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 8
(D) 9

Correct Answer: [A] 11.

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indian constitution question paper with answer p9

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Page 9

41. Elections to the Vidhan Parishad are held by
(A) the system of proportional representation.
(B) the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
(C) Direct elections
(D) Indirect elections

Correct Answer: [B] the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote..

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42. Which of the following emergencies has been declared the maximum number of times?
(A) Financial Emergency
(B) President's Rule in a State
(C) National Emergency
(D) All three, equal number of times

Correct Answer: [B] President's Rule in a State.

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43. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan

Correct Answer: [A] Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

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44. The group of people in the State to constitute backward class to satisfy Article 15(4) is left to the decision of
(A) the State
(B) the Parliament
(C) the Court
(D) the President of India

Correct Answer: [D] the President of India.

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45. Under Article 16, the words 'any employment or office' applies to
(A) public employment
(B) private employment
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] public employment.

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Indian constitution questions and answers for competitive exams P8

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Page 8

36. Which one of the following authority is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Governor of a State
(D) The Parliament of India

Correct Answer: [A] The President of India.

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37. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President?
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Chairman of the UPSC

Correct Answer: [C] Attorney General of India.

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38. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the appointment of Comptroller and Auditor General?
(A) Article 78
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 178
(D) Article 238

Correct Answer: [B] Article 148.

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39. The Parliament of India consists of
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President

Correct Answer: [D] Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President.

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40. Total strength of the Council of States consists of
(A) 260 members
(B) 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President
(C) 305 members
(D) 300 members representing States and Union Territories

Correct Answer: [B] 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President.

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Free Objective Question For UPSC | SSC | Rail NTPC | RRB | State PSC P42

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Page 42

206. All taxes come under
(A) Revenue receipts
(B) Capital receipts
(C) Public debt
(D) Both A and B

Correct Answer: [C] Public debt.

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207. People below the poverty line in India are classified as such based on whether
(A) they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket.
(B) they get work for a minimum number of days in a year.
(C) they belong to minority groups.
(D) their daily wages follows below prescribed minimum wages

Correct Answer: [A] they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket..

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208. The basic regulatory authority for mutual funds and stock exchange lies with
(A) Government of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(D) Stock Exchange

Correct Answer: [C] Securities and Exchange Board of India.

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209. National Income of India is compiled by
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Indian Statistical Institute
(C) National Development Council
(D) Central Statistical Organisation

Correct Answer: [D] Central Statistical Organisation.

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210. In India GDP is higher than GNP because
(A) import is higher than exports.
(B) capital inflow is higher than capital outflow.
(C) net factor income is negative.
(D) government expenditure is more than income

Correct Answer: [A] import is higher than exports..

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Indian Economy MCQ For UPSC | SSC | Rail NTPC | RRB | State PSC P41

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Page 41

201. Bank rate is the rate at which
(A) a bank lends to the public.
(B) RBI lends to the public.
(C) The government of India lends money to other countries.
(D) RBI lends to commercial banks.

Correct Answer: [D] RBI lends to commercial banks..

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202. The main argument in favor of small-scale and cottage industries in India is that
(A) cost of production is low.
(B) it requires a small capital investment.
(C) they advance the goal of equitable distribution of wealth.
(D) they generate a large volume of employment

Correct Answer: [D] they generate a large volume of employment.

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203. Which of the following statements regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRB) in India is correct?
i) The basic income setting up by the RRBs is to develop rural economy.
ii) It covers a specific region as it covers only one or a few districts.
iii) RRBs are sponsored by Commercial Banks. Select the answer.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii)

Correct Answer: [B] (i) and (ii) only.

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204. The liabilities of commercial bank are
(i) time deposits
(ii) security holdings
(iii) demand deposits
(iv) advances from central bank
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (i)

Correct Answer: [B] (i), (iii), (iv).

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205. What is the main function of EXIM bank?
(A) to help RBI in the regulation of foreign exchange.
(B) to prevent the unlicensed transaction.
(C) to promote exports and curtail imports.
(D) to conserve foreign exchange

Correct Answer: [C] to promote exports and curtail imports..

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Selected Questions on Indian Economy For UPSC | SSC | State PSC P40

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Page 40

196. Operation Borga a program to the universal registration of tenants was performed in 1977 in the state of
(A) Odisha
(B) Bihar
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra

Correct Answer: [C] West Bengal.

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197. The economic policy adopted in 1948 was
(A) Mixed Economy
(B) The socialistic pattern of society
(C) Open economy
(D) Government Economy

Correct Answer: [A] Mixed Economy.

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198. Who first time calculate per head income in India
(A) V. K. R. V. Rao
(B) P. C. Mahalnabish
(C) Dadabhai Nauroji
(D) Adam Smith

Correct Answer: [C] Dadabhai Nauroji.

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199. When SEBI was given the status of the statutory body
(A) 1992
(B) 1991
(C) 1990
(D) 1993

Correct Answer: [A] 1992.

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200. Who is the chairman of 14th finance Commission
(A) Y. V. Reddy
(B) N. K. Sing
(C) Arvind Saxena
(D) Arvind Panagariya

Correct Answer: [A] Y. V. Reddy.

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Important MCQ on Indian Economy For UPSC | SSC | Rail NTPC | RRB | State PSC P39

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Page 39

191. The concept of planned economy was first time propagate by ?
(A) J L Nehru
(B) M. N. Roy
(C) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(D) M Vishwashariya

Correct Answer: [D] M Vishwashariya.
Explanation: In 1934 he propagates this concept in his book Planned Economy For India

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192. Who was forwarded the concept Sarvodaya (Upliftment for all) plan to the government in 1950
(A) M. N. Roy
(B) J. L. Nehru
(C) J. P. Narayan
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji

Correct Answer: [C] J. P. Narayan.
Explanation: Jay Prakash Narayan was also call for peaceful total revolution in the 1970s

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193. Which of the following is not right about planning commission?
(A) Autonomous Body
(B) Extra-Constitutional Body
(C) Department of Union Government
(D) Statutory Body

Correct Answer: [D] Statutory Body.

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194. Who was the deputy chairman of planning commission formed in 1950
(A) P. C. Mahalanobis
(B) J. L. Nehru
(C) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(D) Jay Prakash Narayan

Correct Answer: [C] Gulzari Lal Nanda.

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195. The report economic survey of India is published by
(A) Central Statistics Organization
(B) Finance Minister
(C) National Sample Survey Organization
(D) Ministry of Finance

Correct Answer: [D] Ministry of Finance.

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Indian Economy MCQ For UPSC | SSC | Rail NTPC | RRB | State PSC P38

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Page 38

186. Which one of the following years is regarded as the base year for construction of the Wholesale Price Index in India?
(A) 2011-12
(B) 2005-06
(C) 1990-91
(D) 2000-01

Correct Answer: [A] 2011-12.

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187. Liberalization of Indian Economy started from
(A) 1995
(B) 1988
(C) 1991
(D) 1985

Correct Answer: [C] 1991.

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188. The apex body which operates the micro-finance scheme by promoting self-help groups of individuals from a homogenous class through banks or non-government organizations is
(A) State Bank of India
(B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(C) Regional Rural Bank
(D) Grameen Bank

Correct Answer: [B] National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.

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189. What is capital?
(A) Capital is produced means of production
(B) None of the above
(C) Money is capital
(D) Machinery and building capital

Correct Answer: [A] Capital is produced means of production.

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190. Bank rate is an instrument of
(A) Reducing Deficit Financing
(B) Increasing Tax Revenue
(C) Credit Control
(D) Reducing Fiscal Deficit

Correct Answer: [C] Credit Control.

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General Knowledge Objective Question and Answers P37

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Page 37

181. National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme gives the right to employment for
(A) 100 days a year
(B) 30 days a year
(C) 70 days a year
(D) 200 days a year

Correct Answer: [A] 100 days a year.

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182. Point out the false statement, India entered into financial structural reform by
(A) Opening of the domestic market to the world trade
(B) devaluation of exchange rate
(C) increasing import restriction
(D) import liberalization

Correct Answer: [C] increasing import restriction.

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183. Deficit financing of a plan normally has —
(A) A stabilizing effect on the economy
(B) A neutral effect on the economy
(C) An inflationary effect on the economy
(D) A deflationary effect on the economy

Correct Answer: [C] An inflationary effect on the economy.

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184. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted on
(A) August 14, 1947
(B) October 20, 1962
(C) December 10, 1948
(D) January 26, 1950

Correct Answer: [C] December 10, 1948.

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185. In India, the Repo rate is announced by
(A) the Reserve Bank of India
(B) the President of India
(C) the Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(D) the Prime Minister of India

Correct Answer: [A] the Reserve Bank of India.

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Free Mock Practice Set For UPSC | SSC | Rail NTPC | RRB | State PSC P36

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Page 36

176. VAT is imposed on
(A) The value added at each stage of production of a commodity
(B) Aggregate value in terms of cost of production of the producer of a commodity
(C) The final consumer of a commodity
(D) Total value added at the final stage production of a commodity

Correct Answer: [A] The value added at each stage of production of a commodity.

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177. During first five year Plan the national income was increased by
(A) 18% 1Z
(B) 10%
(C) 5%
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] 18% 1Z.

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178. The Asian Pacific Economic Co-Operation (APEC) was inaugurated in 1989 at —
(A) Rome
(B) Canberra
(C) Washington
(D) London

Correct Answer: [B] Canberra.

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179. The objective of TRYSEM is
(A) Training for Self-employment of Woman
(B) Prepare child development programme
(C) Training of Rural Youth for Self-employment
(D) Self-employment of Urban Youth

Correct Answer: [C] Training of Rural Youth for Self-employment.

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180. Name the programme of poverty alleviation launched the Government of India which was immensely benefited the rural poor.
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme.
(B) Food for Work programme
(C) Jawhar Rojgar Yojona
(D) Indira Gandhi Rural Housing Programme

Correct Answer: [A] National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme..

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General Knowledge MCQ For UPSC | SSC | Rail NTPC | RRB | State PSC P35

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Page 35

171. Land Reforms refers to the government's efforts at
(A) regulating land prices
(B) regulating land use
(C) abolishing ownership rights of non-cultivating landlords
(D) making the ownership rights of landlords more secure

Correct Answer: [C] abolishing ownership rights of non-cultivating landlords.

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172. Peasant farming means —
(A) Cultivation is done by hired labor
(B) None of the above
(C) The tenant cultivates the land
(D) The cultivator is the landowner

Correct Answer: [C] The tenant cultivates the land.

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173. Marginal workers are people with
(A) only 183 days of work in a census year
(B) More than 183 days of work in a census year
(C) Less than 183 days of work in a census year
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [C] Less than 183 days of work in a census year.

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174. Tertiary sector activities include
(A) Construction activities
(B) Infrastructure services
(C) Cottage industries
(D) Mining activities

Correct Answer: [B] Infrastructure services.

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175. What is meant by TRIPS?
(A) Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights
(B) Proportionate Tariff rule
(C) Laws relating to a tax rebate
(D) Trade-related laws

Correct Answer: [A] Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights.

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Page 34

166. Existence of huge black money creates
(A) increase in the inequality of income
(B) high living standard for all
(C) decrease in the quality of output
(D) Both B and C

Correct Answer: [C] decrease in the quality of output.

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167. The National Wildlife Action Plan was adopted by India in
(A) 1983
(B) 1993
(C) 1963
(D) 1973

Correct Answer: [D] 1973.

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168. The index of poverty is prepared on the basis of
(A) Subsistence level of consumption expenditure
(B) Employment situation
(C) Assets distribution
(D) Income distribution

Correct Answer: [A] Subsistence level of consumption expenditure.

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169. AGMARK is related to
(A) agricultural goods
(B) agricultural finance
(C) industry
(D) the Indian Railways

Correct Answer: [A] agricultural goods.

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170. Industrial credit is available from
(A) SFCs
(B) IFCI
(C) IDBI
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: [B] IFCI.

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Page 33

161. Government of India has started selling a share of selected public sectors from the year
(A) 1994
(B) 1997
(C) 1992
(D) 1993

Correct Answer: [C] 1992.

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162. World Trade Organisation (WTO) directed LDCs including India to
(A) increase liberalization and co-operation in the foreign trade sector
(B) bring in exchange control measures
(C) impose export subsidy
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] increase liberalization and co-operation in the foreign trade sector.

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163. When was the recommendation of the States Reorganis4tion Act in West Bengal implemented?
(A) 1956
(B) 1957
(C) 1954
(D) 1955

Correct Answer: [A] 1956.

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164. The Chairman of 15th Finance Commission was -
(A) Mahavir Tyagi
(B) N. K. Sing
(C) K.C. Panth
(D) Manmohan Singh

Correct Answer: [B] N. K. Sing.

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165. In terms of Human Development Index, India falls under the following category
(A) Low
(B) Very Low
(C) High
(D) Medium

Correct Answer: [D] Medium.

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Objective Indian Economy For UPSC | SSC | Rail NTPC | RRB | State PSC P32

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Page 32

156. In the second industrial policy of 1956, industries were divided into
(A) Four classes
(B) six classes
(C) Two classes
(D) Three classes

Correct Answer: [D] Three classes.

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157. In the financing of the Indian plans, indirect taxes have played
(A) A less important role compared to that of direct taxes
(B) A less important role compared to that of deficit financing
(C) A very important role
(D) A negligible role

Correct Answer: [C] A very important role.

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158. Which of the following factors is most important for the future industrial development of India?
(A) Huge investment is to be undertaken by the investor class
(B) None of the above
(C) Maintenance of industrial peace
(D) Creation of adequate infrastructural facilities

Correct Answer: [D] Creation of adequate infrastructural facilities.

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159. In which of the following plans did India experience to successive wars?
(A) Fourth Five Year Plan
(B) Fifth Five Year Plan
(C) Second Five Year Plan
(D) Third Five Year Plan

Correct Answer: [D] Third Five Year Plan.

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160. The objective of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2004 is
(A) to ensure that public debt does not exceed 50% of the GDP of the year from 2011.
(B) to reduce the fiscal deficit.
(C) to reduce revenue deficit.
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: [B] to reduce the fiscal deficit..

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Page 31

151. The 11th Five Year Plan is setting the stage for
(A) 10% economic growth
(B) 8% economic growth
(C) 11 % economic growth
(D) 9% economic growth

Correct Answer: [D] 9% economic growth.

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152. Which one, out of the following, is not the objective of Indian Planning?
(A) Self-reliance
(B) Productive employment generation
(C) Industrial growth
(D) Population growth

Correct Answer: [D] Population growth.

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153. India is a full member of
(A) SAARC
(B) E.U.
(C) NAFTA
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] SAARC.

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154. According to Purchasing Power Parity (PPP), India is
(A) Fourth largest economy
(B) Seventh largest economy
(C) Tenth largest economy
(D) Third largest economy

Correct Answer: [A] Fourth largest economy.

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155. The Mahalanobis strategy of Indian Planning gave emphasis to the growth of
(A) Heavy Capital Goods Industrial sector
(B) Small Scale Village Industrial sector
(C) Agricultural sector
(D) Services sector

Correct Answer: [A] Heavy Capital Goods Industrial sector.

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