Sunday, February 24, 2019

WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity Questions Answers For WBCS Mains P7


Page 7

31. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
(A) Article 258
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 262
(D) Article 264

Correct Answer: [C] Article 262.
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32. Disputes between States comes to the Supreme Court under
(A) original jurisdiction
(B) advisory jurisdiction
(C) appellate jurisdiction
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] original jurisdiction.
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33. The doctrine of prospective overruling was first evolved by Chief Justice Subba Rao in
(A) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(C) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

Correct Answer: [D] Golaknath v. State of Punjab.
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34. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court held that primacy should be given to the opinion of other constitutional functions in the matter of appointment of High Court and Supreme Court judges.
(A) Keshvananda Bharti case
(B) Special Courts Bills case
(C) Transfer of Judges case
(D) Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India

Correct Answer: [D] Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India.
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35. Every judge of the Supreme Court of India shall hold office until he attains the' age of
(A) 58 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years

Correct Answer: [D] 65 years.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity Quiz For WBCS Prelims and Mains P6


Page 6

26. Under Article 321 of the Constitution, the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Parliament
(C) Chairman of the Commission
(D) President

Correct Answer: [B] Parliament.
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27. After what time period may a House declare the seat of any member vacant when he absents from all meetings without the permission of the House?
(A) 30 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 60 days
(D) There is no time period

Correct Answer: [C] 60 days.
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28. When the offices of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are vacant, who will appoint the person to perform the functions of the Speaker?
(A) The President
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Council of Ministers

Correct Answer: [A] The President.
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29. How many members in the House of the People are chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States?
(A) 520
(B) 530
(C) 540
(D) 550

Correct Answer: [B] 530.
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30. How many languages are present in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22

Correct Answer: [D] 22.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity MCQs and Notes For WBCS exams P5


Page 5

21. The East India Company was established by the British Crown in the year
(A) 1600 AD.
(B) 1605 AD.
(C) 1726 AD.
(D) 1857 AD

Correct Answer: [A] 1600 AD..
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22. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving the question of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in
(A) Article 156
(B) Article 254
(C) Article 300
(D) Entry 42, List III

Correct Answer: [B] Article 254.
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23. The Central Government can issue directions to the States with regard to I. Union List II. State List III Concurrent List Codes:
(A) I
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and III

Correct Answer: [D] I, II and III.
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24. "What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly". The doctrine relates to
(A) implied powers
(B) ancillary power
(C) pith and substance
(D) colorable legislation

Correct Answer: [D] colorable legislation.
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25. When the Supreme Court sits to determine any question involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution or for tendering its advice, the minimum number of judges to constitute the Bench should be
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 13

Correct Answer: [B] 5.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

WBCS Main MCQs on Indian Polity and Constitutions P4


Page 4

16. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the
(A) British Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Federal Legislature
(D) Governor-General

Correct Answer: [D] Governor-General.
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17. Quit India movement was declared by the Indian National Congress in Bombay session of ACCCC on
(A) August 8, 1942
(B) August 9, 1945
(C) July 18, 1947
(D) January 26, 1947

Correct Answer: [A] August 8, 1942.
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18. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Federal Court had
(A) original jurisdiction only
(B) appellate jurisdiction only
(C) advisory jurisdiction only
(D) All the above

Correct Answer: [D] All the above.
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19. For the first time, the system of appeal from India to the Privy Council in England was introduced by the Charter of
(A) 1608
(B) 1683
(C) 1726
(D) 1833

Correct Answer: [D] 1833.
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20. Under the Charter of 1687, a Mayor's Court was established at Madras. The Mayor had to be
(A) elected by the Alderman and the Burgesses every year.
(B) nominated by the company.
(C) senior-most Alderman to be next year.
(D) nominated by the company on the recommendation of the outgoing Mayor

Correct Answer: [B] nominated by the company..
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity and Constitution - WBPSC Exams P3


Page 3

11. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the
(A) Canadian Constitution.
(B) Italian Constitution.
(C) French Constitution.
(D) Constitution of USA

Correct Answer: [D] Constitution of USA.
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12. From which of the countries, the Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties?
(A) USA.
(B) UK.
(C) Erstwhile USSR.
(D) Canada

Correct Answer: [C] Erstwhile USSR..
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13. The British conceded the demand for partition of India under
(A) Cripps Mission.
(B) Mountbatten Plan, 1947.
(C) Simla Pact, 1945.
(D) Cabinet Mission Plan

Correct Answer: [B] Mountbatten Plan, 1947..
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14. The first Session of the Constituent Assembly was held on
(A) December 9, 1946
(B) November 26, 1949
(C) August 15, 1947
(D) January 26, 1946

Correct Answer: [A] December 9, 1946.
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15. Which of the following was not one of the features of the Government of India Act, 1935?
(A) Bicameral legislature.
(B) Dyarchy of center and the provinces.
(C) Provincial autonomy.
(D) All India Federation

Correct Answer: [B] Dyarchy of center and the provinces..
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity and Constitution WBCS Mains Exams P2


Page 2

6. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the
(A) Prime Minister.
(B) Chairman of UPSC.
(C) President on the recommendation of Supreme Court.
(D) Prime Minister on the recommendation of the Supreme Court

Correct Answer: [C] President on the recommendation of Supreme Court..
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7. The Chief Election Commissioner is
(A) appointed by Home Minister.
(B) appointed by Prime Minister.
(C) elected by Parliament.
(D) appointed by the President

Correct Answer: [D] appointed by the President.
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8. The special status of Jammu & Kashmir implies the state as
(A) a separate judiciary.
(B) a separate constitution.
(C) a separate defense force.
(D) All the above

Correct Answer: [B] a separate constitution..
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9. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that 'Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution'?
(A) In re Keshwananda Bharti.
(B) In re Golaknath case.
(C) In re Swam Singh.
(D) In re Maneka Gandhi

Correct Answer: [A] In re Keshwananda Bharti..
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10. Which of the following sought to change the character of Indian Government from unitary to federal?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1909.
(B) The government of India Act, 1935.
(C) The government of India Act, 1919.
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947

Correct Answer: [B] The government of India Act, 1935..
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity and Constitution For WBCS MAIN Previous Years MCQs P1


Page 1

1. In the beginning, there were only eight schedules in the Constitution. Xth schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
(A) the Finance Commission.
(B) the Election Commission.
(C) defections.
(D) Other Backward Classes.

Correct Answer: [C] defections..
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2. Chairman and other members of the Union and State Public Service Commissions are appointed by
(A) the President.
(B) the President and Governor of respective States.
(C) the Prime Minister and Chief Minister of the respective States.
(D) Both A and C

Correct Answer: [B] the President and Governor of respective States..
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3. There are mainly three Standing Finance Committee in the Parliament. The largest committee of Parliament of India is
(A) Committee on Public Undertaking.
(B) Estimates Committee.
(C) Joint Parliamentary Committee.
(D) Public Account Committee

Correct Answer: [B] Estimates Committee..
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4. The members of UPSC hold the office
(A) as long as they enjoy the confidence in Parliament.
(B) for life or till they attain the age of 70 years.
(C) during the pleasure of President.
(D) for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years

Correct Answer: [D] for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years.
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5. The Chairman of the Election Commission is appointed by the President for 6 years. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of election to
(A) State Legislature.
(B) Office of President and Vice President.
(C) Parliament.
(D) All the above

Correct Answer: [D] All the above.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

MCQs on Indian Polity and Constitution P36


Page 36

176. Judicial Committee of the Privy Council was the highest court to appeal for a commonwealth country under the British empire. It was established in
(A) 1813
(B) 1726
(C) 1683
(D) 1833

Correct Answer: [D] 1833.
Explanation: Privy Council was considered as the court of last resort. India retained the right to appeal from the Federal Court of India till 1950. It was abolished by the act of 1949 following the replacement of the Federal Court by The Supreme Court of India. The system of appeal from India to the Privy Council in England was introduced by the Charter Act 1933.
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177. The date mentioned in the preamble of the Indian Constitution is
(A) 18289
(B) 18593
(C) 17924
(D) 18228

Correct Answer: [D] 18228.
Explanation: It was the date when the constitution was adopted in 26-Nov-1949. The constitution was finally enacted in 26-January-1950.
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178. Which of the following word is not added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
(A) Fraternity
(B) Integrity
(C) Liberty
(D) Unity

Correct Answer: [C] Liberty.
Explanation: The words were added by 42nd CA are Secular, Socialist, Fraternity, Unity, and Integrity.
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179. According to the constitution, what is the source of all power?
(A) Indian National Army
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister and its cabinet
(D) We, the people of India

Correct Answer: [D] We, the people of India.
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180. A quasi-federal form of government i.e a federal system with strong central government was adopted in Indian constitution from the constitution of
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) Canada
(D) Russia

Correct Answer: [C] Canada.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

MCQs on Indian Polity and Constitution P35


Page 35

171. Who appoints a member of UPSC and State PSCs?
(A) Governor
(B) President
(C) President and Governor respectively
(D) President on the recommendation of Prime minister and Chief Minister respectively

Correct Answer: [C] President and Governor respectively.
Explanation: A member of state PSC is appointed by Governor, but the member of joint PSCs is appointed by President. President can only remove a member or multiple members of State PSCs and UPSC if they proved wrong in the court of laws.
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172. The state Jammu & Kashmir enjoys special constitutional status following article 370. It implies the state as
(A) a separate constitution
(B) a separate defense force
(C) a separate foreign policy
(D) Att the above

Correct Answer: [A] a separate constitution.
Explanation: Following the article 370 of Indian constitution the state J & K enjoy a special constitutional status. It allows the state to have a separate constitution which stops people from other location to buying a property in this state. Indian Penal Code does not follow in J & K rather Ranbir Penal Code(RPC) followed. Indian Parliament can not make laws on this state without pass the proposal in this state assembly, But the govt of India has right on defense, foreign policy, and communication. The state assembly of J&K is a 6-year tenure whereas the rest of the Indian state has 5 years.
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173. The main source of the Indian Constitution was considered to be the Indian Regulation Act 1935. Which of the following is not a feature of Regulation Act 1935?
(A) All India Federation
(B) Provincial Autonomy
(C) Dyarchy of Center and the Provinces
(D) Bicameral Legislature

Correct Answer: [C] Dyarchy of Center and the Provinces.
Explanation: If you notice closely you can find that options B and C are contradictory. If there is provincial autonomy how could it be dyarchy? Actually, dyarchy was abolished from provinces and applied in the center.
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174. Govt of India Act,1935 was the lengthiest act by that time. According to this article, the residuary power was vested in
(A) State Legislature
(B) Viceroy
(C) Federal Legislature
(D) British parliament

Correct Answer: [B] Viceroy.
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175. Under the GOI, 1935, The federal court was established. The court had the jurisdiction of
(A) appellate jurisdiction only
(B) advisory jurisdiction only
(C) original jurisdiction only
(D) All the above

Correct Answer: [D] All the above.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

WBCS Prelims MCQ on Constitutional Body, Committee P34


Page 34

166. The Judges of the Supreme Court hold office till they reach the age of
(A) 65 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 55 years
(D) There is no upper age Limit

Correct Answer: [A] 65 years.
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167. The Supreme Court of India consists of the Chief Justice and
(A) 29 Judges
(B) 32 Judges
(C) 31 Judges
(D) 30 Judges

Correct Answer: [D] 30 Judges.
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168. Who is the final authority to expound the meaning of the Constitution?
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) Chief Minister
(D) The President

Correct Answer: [B] The Supreme Court.
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169. Mark correctly the precise meaning of the term 'Habeas Corpus'?
(A) To remove the body
(B) None of the above
(C) To put the body behind the prison bar
(D) To have the body

Correct Answer: [D] To have the body.
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170. In India, the Federal Court was constituted by an act of
(A) 1919
(B) 1935
(C) 1891
(D) 1909

Correct Answer: [B] 1935.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

WBCS Prelims MCQ on Constitutional Body, Committee P33


Page 33

161. Who accords recognition to various political parties as national or regional parties?
(A) The Parliament
(B) The President in consultation with the Election Commissioner
(C) The President
(D) The Election Commission

Correct Answer: [D] The Election Commission.
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162. Which of the following committees is concerned with the regularity of the-expenditure of the Government?
(A) Committee on Public Undertakings
(B) All of the above
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) Estimates Committee

Correct Answer: [C] Public Accounts Committee.
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163. The Election Commission of India celebrates the National Voters Day on
(A) 25th January
(B) 1st February
(C) 26th January
(D) 25th March

Correct Answer: [A] 25th January.
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164. What is the number of members in the Public Accounts Committee of the Lok Sabha?
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 7
(D) 10

Correct Answer: [A] 15.
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165. Judges of the High Court in India retire at the age of
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 55
(D) 62

Correct Answer: [D] 62.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

WBCS Prelims MCQ on Constitutional Body, Committee P32


Page 32

156. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by the
(A) President at his sweet will
(B) President on the recommendation of parliament
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Parliament

Correct Answer: [B] President on the recommendation of parliament.
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157. The National Development Council consists of
(A) Members of the Planning Commission
(B) Chief Minister of all States
(C) Prime Minister
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: [D] All of the above.
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158. Chairman of the Indian Planning Commission is
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Vice-President
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister

Correct Answer: [D] Prime Minister.
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159. Constitution of Finance Commission is mentioned in the Constitution and the Chairman of the Commission is appointed by
(A) Chief Justice
(B) Vice-President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President

Correct Answer: [D] President.
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160. The Finance Commission is constituted under Article of the Constitution of India.
(A) 282
(B) None of the above
(C) 275
(D) 280

Correct Answer: [D] 280.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

WBCS Prelims MCQ on Constitutional Body, Committee P31


Page 31

151. Which non-member can participate in the business of either House of Parliament?
(A) The Attorney General
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Vice-President
(D) The Solicitor General

Correct Answer: [A] The Attorney General.
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152. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution provision has been made for the formation of a Finance Commission to deal with various aspects of Centre-State financial relationship?
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 245
(D) Article 280

Correct Answer: [D] Article 280.
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153. Which of the following institutions of India is the chief advisory body on the distribution of tax revenue between the Centre and the States?
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Finance Commission

Correct Answer: [D] The Finance Commission.
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154. Members of the Union Public Service Commission retire at the age of
(A) 64 years
(B) 65
(C) 60 years
(D) 62 years

Correct Answer: [B] 65.
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155. The Election Commission functions under
(A) Supreme Court
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) No authority

Correct Answer: [D] No authority.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P30


Page 30

146. To be granted the Status of the official opposition in a legislature a political party must have at least -
(A) 5 percent of elected members
(B) 7 percent of elected members
(C) 10 percent of elected members
(D) 15 percent of elected members

Correct Answer: [C] 10 percent of elected members.
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147. Sikkim became a full-fledged State of India in
(A) 1965
(B) 1875
(C) 1985
(D) 1975

Correct Answer: [D] 1975.
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148. Which is the first linguistic State of India?
(A) Bihar
(B) Punjab
(C) West Bengal
(D) Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer: [D] Andhra Pradesh.
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149. Article 370 of the Constitution of India applicable in
(A) Karnataka
(B) Bihar
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Jammu & Kashmir

Correct Answer: [D] Jammu & Kashmir.
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150. Which of the following is included in the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948?
(A) Minimum Wages
(B) None of the above
(C) Unemployment Insurance
(D) Medical Benefit

Correct Answer: [D] Medical Benefit.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P29


Page 29

141. The 109th amendment of the Indian Constitution relates to
(A) Reservation for SCs and STs
(B) Official language
(C) The President's power
(D) Age of Voters

Correct Answer: [A] Reservation for SCs and STs.
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142. The world Socialist and Secular were inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the
(A) 43rd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 24th Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment

Correct Answer: [D] 42nd Amendment.
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143. Which Amendment of the Constitution reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
(A) 62nd Amendment
(B) 63rd Amendment
(C) 60th Amendment
(D) 61st Amendment

Correct Answer: [D] 61st Amendment.
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144. The minimum age for being eligible to vote in the Indian Elections was reduced from 21 years to 18 years in the decade of —
(A) 1980's
(B) 1990's
(C) 1960's
(D) 1970's

Correct Answer: [B] 1990's.
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145. No person shall be deprived of his property, Movable or immovable.
(A) This right can be easily abrogated by any Govt.
(B) This is a right created by a landmark court order
(C) This is a fundamental right
(D) This is an ordinary right

Correct Answer: [D] This is an ordinary right.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P28


Page 28

136. By which amendment of the Constitution of India, the right to property was excluded from the Fundamental Rights?
(A) 43rd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 41 st Amendment

Correct Answer: [B] 44th Amendment.
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137. Which Amendment of the Constitution provided constitutional status to the Panchayats?
(A) 74th Amendment
(B) 76th Amendment
(C) 56th Amendment
(D) 73rd Amendment

Correct Answer: [D] 73rd Amendment.
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138. The 108th Constitution (Amendment) Bill was introduced by the UPA Government in Rajya Sabha with the aim of
(A) Establishing the right to education as a Fundamental Right
(B) Providing one-third reservation for the woman in Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
(C) Including the Gujjar community of Rajasthan in the list of Scheduled Tribes
(D) Protecting the right to of arrested persons

Correct Answer: [B] Providing one-third reservation for the woman in Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
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139. 73rd Constitutional Amendment in 1992 1. Provided a constitutional guarantee to the formation of Panchayat at the village and other levels 2. Added a new part to the Constitution relating to urban local bodies 3. Stipulated that all Panchayat member be elected for a five-year term in elections supervised by State Election Commission Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3

Correct Answer: [D] 1 and 3.
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140. Which constitutional Amendment Act granted the Right to Education for all Indian citizens?
(A) 86th Amendment
(B) 91 st Amendment
(C) 73rd Amendment
(D) 74th Amendment

Correct Answer: [A] 86th Amendment.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P27


Page 27

131. Which of the following Amendments of the Indian Constitution deals with the anti-defection law?
(A) 53rd Amendment
(B) 54th Amendment
(C) 51 st Amendment
(D) 52nd Amendment

Correct Answer: [D] 52nd Amendment.
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132. Which of the following words has been incorporated into the Preamble to the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment?
(A) Secular Democratic
(B) Democratic Republic
(C) Sovereign Socialist
(D) Socialist Secular

Correct Answer: [D] Socialist Secular.
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133. By which Amendment of the Constitution was the minimum age of voter lowered from 21 to 18 years?
(A) 61st
(B) 63rd
(C) 48th
(D) 57th

Correct Answer: [A] 61st.
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134. Indian Constitution can be amended under Article
(A) 390
(B) 239
(C) 220
(D) 368

Correct Answer: [D] 368.
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135. The first Amendment Act to the India Constitution was made in the year
(A) 1955
(B) 1960
(C) 1949
(D) 1951

Correct Answer: [D] 1951.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P26


Page 26

126. Panchayati Raj was started in India in the year
(A) 1959
(B) 1961
(C) 1956
(D) 1951

Correct Answer: [A] 1959.
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127. The Government of West Bengal introduced democratic elections to the local bodies in
(A) 1979
(B) 1980
(C) 1977
(D) 1978

Correct Answer: [D] 1978.
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128. The decision to hold Panchayat Election is taken by the
(A) Union Home Ministry
(B) Election Commission
(C) District Magistrate
(D) State Government

Correct Answer: [D] State Government.
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129. How many amendments to the Indian Constitution have so far been made?
(A) 103
(B) 124
(C) 102
(D) 132

Correct Answer: [A] 103.
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130. By which Amendment of the Indian Constitution were the fundamental duties of citizens inserted?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 43rd Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 41st Amendment

Correct Answer: [A] 42nd Amendment.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P25


Page 25

121. The powers and responsibilities of the Panchayat Raj an be revised by the
(A) Governor
(B) Central
(C) President
(D) State Government

Correct Answer: [D] State Government.
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122. The establishment of a Gram Sabha becomes mandatory by
(A) The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution
(B) The 74th Amendment of the Constitution
(C) The 71 st Amendment of the Constitution
(D) The 72nd Amendment of the Constitution

Correct Answer: [A] The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution.
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123. The power and responsibility of Panchayati Raj institution can be revised by
(A) State Government
(B) Union Government
(C) President
(D) Governor

Correct Answer: [A] State Government.
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124. Which of the Committees or Commissions made recommendations for granting more power and responsibilities to the Panchayati Raj?
(A) Mondal Commission
(B) None of the above
(C) Jain Commission
(D) Mehta Committee

Correct Answer: [D] Mehta Committee.
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125. Which of the following gets special representation to Panchayati Raj Institutions
(A) Co-operative
(B) All of them
(C) Women
(D) OBC

Correct Answer: [C] Women.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P24


Page 24

116. The total number of Panchayat Samiti in West Bengal is
(A) Over 500
(B) Over 225
(C) Over 341
(D) Just below 500

Correct Answer: [C] Over 341.
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117. Panchayat Samiti is an organization associated with
(A) Block
(B) Zilla
(C) A single village
(D) a couple of villagers

Correct Answer: [A] Block.
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118. Among all Panchayat Samitis seats, seats reserved for women is
(A) One-third of the total seats
(B) One-sixth of the total seats.
(C) One-fifth of the total seats
(D) One-fourth of the total seats

Correct Answer: [A] One-third of the total seats.
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119. Panchayati Raj was first started in
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Kerala
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar

Correct Answer: [A] Rajasthan.
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120. A system of Panchayati Raj existed even before 1947 in
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) All of the above
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat

Correct Answer: [A] Tamil Nadu.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P23


Page 23

111. Agriculture, under the Indian Constitution, is a
(A) Concurrent list
(B) Union Government subject.
(C) State subject
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [C] State subject.
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112. The number of subjects enumerated int he concurrent list for purpose of Legislation
(A) 50
(B) 57
(C) 40
(D) 47

Correct Answer: [D] 47.
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113. Grants-in-aid are provided for in the Constitution of India under Articles
(A) 275 and 285
(B) 275 and 282
(C) 274 and 275
(D) 275 and 296

Correct Answer: [B] 275 and 282.
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114. Taw and Order is included in the
(A) State List
(B) Union List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [B] Union List.
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115. In India non-agricultural income tax is
(A) levied and appropriated by the Centre.
(B) levied by the Centre and shared with the States.
(C) levied by the Centre and fully distributed among the States.
(D) levied by the States

Correct Answer: [B] levied by the Centre and shared with the States..
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P22


Page 22

106. Finances are distributed between the Centre and the States on the basis of the recommendations of the
(A) National Development Council
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Finance Commission

Correct Answer: [D] Finance Commission.
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107. Which of the following items come under the concurrent list?
(A) Public Health
(B) Insurance
(C) Agriculture
(D) Labour Welfare

Correct Answer: [D] Labour Welfare.
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108. Which constitutional mechanism is adopted for the distribution resources between the Centre and States?
(A) Indian Finance Commission set up at the interval of five years
(B) The Planning Commission
(C) The Union Finance Ministry
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] Indian Finance Commission set up at the interval of five years.
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109. Indian constitution allows state legislatures to pass
(A) Constitutional Amendments
(B) State Budget
(C) Union Budget
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [B] State Budget.
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110. Education, under the Indian Constitution, is included in
(A) The Concurrent list
(B) The State list
(C) The Union list
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] The Concurrent list.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P21


Page 21

101. The verdict of the Supreme Court in which one of the following cases has made the imposition of the President's rule any State under article 356 of Constitution difficult?
(A) Kaveri water dispute case between two Southern States
(B) None of the above
(C) A. K. Gopalan Vs Union of India
(D) S. R. Bommai Vs Union of India (regarding the State of Karnataka)

Correct Answer: [D] S. R. Bommai Vs Union of India (regarding the State of Karnataka).
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102. The National Green Tribunal was established in India in
(A) 2011
(B) 2012
(C) 2009
(D) 2010

Correct Answer: [D] 2010.
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103. Taxes on income other than agricultural income shall be levied and collected by the Government of India under Article of India
(A) 270
(B) 275
(C) 268
(D) 269

Correct Answer: [D] 269.
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104. In the classification of power in the Constitution of India, education falls in
(A) Concurrent List
(B) None of the above
(C) Central List
(D) State List

Correct Answer: [A] Concurrent List.
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105. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can the Indian Parliament make laws under the Residuary powers?
(A) Article 250
(B) Article 251
(C) Article 248
(D) Article 249

Correct Answer: [C] Article 248.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P20


Page 20

96. Communalism means
(A) Showing favor on the basis of religion
(B) Showing favor to one community
(C) All communities are equal before the law
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [B] Showing favor to one community.
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97. Supreme Court in its judgment on the Best Bakery case has severely criticized the Government of
(A) Madhya Prades
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat

Correct Answer: [D] Gujarat.
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98. Which of the following statements correctly describes a hung Parliament?
(A) The Parliament lacks the quorum to conduct business
(B) A lame duck Parliament
(C) A Parliament in which no party has a clear majority
(D) The Prime Minister has resigned but the Parliament is not dissolved

Correct Answer: [C] A Parliament in which no party has a clear majority.
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99. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with securing for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
(A) Article 43
(B) Article 44
(C) Article 41
(D) Article 42

Correct Answer: [B] Article 44.
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100. India achieved political independence from British Role on
(A) 15th August 1947
(B) 26th January 1950
(C) 26th January 1950
(D) 26th November 1942

Correct Answer: [A] 15th August 1947.
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WBCS Polity and Constitution MCQs Prelims and Mains

Indian Polity for Prelims - Article, Amendment, Miscellaneous P19


Page 19

91. Under which article of the Constitution, the Government has awarded Bharat and Padmashri awards?
(A) Article 18
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 15
(D) Article 19

Correct Answer: [A] Article 18.
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92. 1972 Who was one of the advocates of "United Sovereign Bengal"
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Shyamaprasau Mukherjee
(C) H. S. Surhawardi
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: [C] H. S. Surhawardi.
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93. Consider the following statements about the Right to Education Bill 1. The preliminary work on the Bill was initiated by the UPA government. 2. One of the key provisions of the Bill is to ensure 25% reservation in private schools for disadvantaged children from the neighborhood, at the entry level. 3. The Bill also prohibits physical punishment expulsion or detention of a child. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) All of 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: [B] 2 and 3.
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94. Which one of the following office has not been provided by the Indian Constitution?
(A) Deputy Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
(B) Deputy Prime Minister
(C) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

Correct Answer: [B] Deputy Prime Minister.
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95. What was the number of princely states in India at the time of partition?
(A) 555
(B) 558
(C) 560
(D) 562

Correct Answer: [D] 562.
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